JEE Main Chemistry Chapter-wise Quiz: Physical and Organic

This JEE Main chemistry chapter-wise quiz gives you 30 physical and organic chemistry MCQs, five per chapter group, with a full answer key and worked calculations. Every chapter comes from the official JEE Main 2026 syllabus, which is still the base for 2027 preparation.

Use it as a quick check after you finish a chapter, or as a revision round before full mock tests. Inorganic chemistry is covered separately in our inorganic chemistry exceptions list and 25-question quiz. For the other two subjects, try our JEE Main physics chapter-wise quiz and JEE Main maths chapter-wise quiz in the same format.

Notation: formulas are written plainly, so H2SO4 means sulphuric acid and Cu2+ means the copper(II) ion. A power of ten is written with ^, so 10^-5 means 10 to the power minus 5. Use R = 8.314 J/(mol K) and F = 96500 C/mol unless a question says otherwise.

Which chapters does this JEE Main chemistry quiz cover?

The quiz covers six chapter groups: three from physical chemistry and three from organic chemistry, mapped to the units in the official NTA syllabus. Each group has five single-answer MCQs. Atomic structure, chemical bonding and biomolecules are not included here, so revise them separately.

For the full unit list and the topics removed in the 2024 revision, see our JEE Main 2027 syllabus guide. NTA has not released a separate 2027 syllabus yet, so re-check when the 2027 bulletin comes out.

Set A: Can you solve these mole concept and solutions MCQs?

These questions test stoichiometry, limiting reagent, concentration terms and colligative properties. Write each calculation on paper; most mistakes here come from skipping a step, such as forgetting that H2SO4 gives two H+ ions per molecule.

1. For the reaction 2H2 + O2 → 2H2O, 4 g of H2 is mixed with 16 g of O2. What mass of water is formed? (a) 36 g (b) 18 g (c) 20 g (d) 9 g
2. What volume of 0.1 M NaOH is needed to neutralise 20 mL of 0.1 M H2SO4 completely? (a) 10 mL (b) 20 mL (c) 40 mL (d) 80 mL
3. 3 g of urea (molar mass 60 g/mol) is dissolved in 250 g of water. The molality of the solution is: (a) 0.2 m (b) 0.02 m (c) 0.05 m (d) 2 m
4. Which 0.1 molal aqueous solution has the highest boiling point? Assume complete dissociation of electrolytes. (a) glucose (b) urea (c) NaCl (d) CaCl2
5. The vapour pressure of a pure solvent is 100 mm Hg. A non-volatile solute is added so that its mole fraction is 0.05. Assuming ideal behaviour, the vapour pressure of the solution is: (a) 5 mm Hg (b) 95 mm Hg (c) 100 mm Hg (d) 105 mm Hg

Also readJEE Mains 2027 Registration & Notification: Status on 11 Oct 2026

Set B: How well do you know thermodynamics and equilibrium?

This set checks spontaneity, the link between ΔH and ΔU, pH, the Kp-Kc relation and solubility product. Keep the sign of Δn (moles of gaseous products minus gaseous reactants) in mind for two of these.

6. A reaction has ΔH negative and ΔS positive. The reaction is spontaneous: (a) only at high temperature (b) only at low temperature (c) at all temperatures (d) at no temperature
7. For N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) at temperature T, the correct relation is: (a) ΔH = ΔU (b) ΔH = ΔU + 2RT (c) ΔH = ΔU − 2RT (d) ΔH = ΔU − RT
8. The pH of 0.005 M H2SO4 at 25 °C, assuming complete dissociation, is: (a) 2.3 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 1.7
9. For the equilibrium N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g), the relation between Kp and Kc is: (a) Kp = Kc (b) Kp = Kc(RT)^2 (c) Kp = Kc(RT)^-2 (d) Kp = Kc(RT)^-1
10. The Ksp of AgCl at 298 K is 1.8 × 10^-10. Its solubility in pure water is about: (a) 1.8 × 10^-5 mol/L (b) 9.0 × 10^-11 mol/L (c) 3.6 × 10^-10 mol/L (d) 1.34 × 10^-5 mol/L

Set C: Can you crack electrochemistry and kinetics MCQs?

Here you need standard electrode potentials, the ΔG° = −nFE° relation, Faraday's laws and first-order half-life. Use E°(Cu2+/Cu) = +0.34 V and E°(Zn2+/Zn) = −0.76 V for questions 11 and 12.

11. The standard emf of the cell Zn | Zn2+ (1 M) || Cu2+ (1 M) | Cu is: (a) 0.42 V (b) 1.10 V (c) −1.10 V (d) 0.76 V
12. The standard Gibbs energy change for the same cell reaction, Zn + Cu2+ → Zn2+ + Cu, is about: (a) −106.2 kJ/mol (b) +212.3 kJ/mol (c) −212.3 kJ/mol (d) −424.6 kJ/mol
13. How much charge is needed to deposit 1 mol of aluminium from Al3+ ions? (a) 96,500 C (b) 1,93,000 C (c) 2,89,500 C (d) 32,167 C
14. A first-order reaction has a half-life of 10 minutes. The time needed for 75% completion is: (a) 20 minutes (b) 15 minutes (c) 30 minutes (d) 40 minutes
15. The rate constant of a reaction has the unit L mol^-1 s^-1. The overall order of the reaction is: (a) zero (b) first (c) second (d) third

Set D: How strong is your general organic chemistry?

General organic chemistry, or GOC, is the base for every organic chapter. This set covers carbocation stability, inductive effect on acidity, isomerism, chirality and Lassaigne's test from the purification and characterisation unit.

16. Which carbocation is the most stable? (a) CH3CH2+ (b) (CH3)3C+ (c) CH3+ (d) (CH3)2CH+
17. Which is the strongest acid? (a) Cl3CCOOH (b) ClCH2COOH (c) Cl2CHCOOH (d) CH3COOH
18. Which compound shows geometrical (cis-trans) isomerism? (a) propene, CH3CH=CH2 (b) 2-methylpropene, (CH3)2C=CH2 (c) but-2-ene, CH3CH=CHCH3 (d) ethene, CH2=CH2
19. How many chiral carbon atoms are present in 3-chlorobutan-2-ol, CH3CH(OH)CH(Cl)CH3? (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 0 (d) 3
20. In Lassaigne's test for nitrogen, the Prussian blue colour is due to: (a) Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS] (b) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (c) Fe(SCN)3 (d) NaCN

Also readJEE Main Physics Chapter-wise Quiz: 30 MCQs with Answers

Set E: Can you answer these hydrocarbons and haloalkanes MCQs?

This set tests addition to alkenes, ozonolysis, SN1 and SN2 behaviour, and the directing effect of halogens on a benzene ring. These are frequent sources of "trap" options, so read every option fully.

21. Propene reacts with HBr in the presence of a peroxide. The main product is: (a) 1-bromopropane (b) 2-bromopropane (c) 1,2-dibromopropane (d) propane
22. Ozonolysis of 2-methylbut-2-ene, (CH3)2C=CHCH3, followed by Zn/H2O gives: (a) two molecules of acetone (b) propanal and formaldehyde (c) two molecules of acetaldehyde (d) acetone and acetaldehyde
23. Which alkyl bromide reacts fastest by the SN1 mechanism? (a) CH3Br (b) (CH3)3CBr (c) (CH3)2CHBr (d) CH3CH2Br
24. (R)-2-bromobutane reacts with aqueous NaOH by a pure SN2 mechanism. The product is: (a) (R)-butan-2-ol (b) a racemic mixture of butan-2-ol (c) (S)-butan-2-ol (d) only but-2-ene
25. In electrophilic substitution of chlorobenzene, the chlorine atom is: (a) deactivating and ortho/para directing (b) deactivating and meta directing (c) activating and meta directing (d) activating and ortho/para directing

Set F: How well do you know oxygen and nitrogen compounds?

The last set covers alcohols, phenols, carbonyl compounds, amines and diazonium salts. These units carry many named reactions and tests, so link each answer to the structure feature that causes it, such as an alpha hydrogen or a CH3CO group.

26. Which compound gives a positive iodoform test? (a) methanol (b) propan-1-ol (c) ethanol (d) benzyl alcohol
27. Phenol is more acidic than ethanol mainly because: (a) phenol has a higher molar mass (b) ethanol forms stronger hydrogen bonds (c) the O–H bond in phenol is longer (d) the phenoxide ion is stabilised by resonance
28. Which compound does not undergo aldol condensation? (a) CH3CHO (b) HCHO (c) CH3COCH3 (d) CH3CH2CHO
29. The correct order of basic strength in aqueous solution is: (a) (CH3)3N > (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > NH3 (b) (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N > NH3 (c) NH3 > CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N (d) CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH > (CH3)3N > NH3
30. Benzenediazonium chloride, C6H5N2Cl, on warming with water gives: (a) aniline (b) chlorobenzene (c) phenol (d) benzene

Answer key with explanations

Check your answers set by set. For every calculation question, the working is shown so you can find exactly where you went wrong. Mark guessed answers as wrong even if they were correct, and revise those topics too.

Set A answers

1. (b) 18 g. H2 = 4/2 = 2 mol; O2 = 16/32 = 0.5 mol. 2 mol H2 needs 1 mol O2, so O2 is limiting. 0.5 mol O2 gives 1 mol H2O = 18 g.
2. (c) 40 mL. Moles of H2SO4 = 0.1 × 0.020 = 0.002 mol, giving 0.004 mol H+. NaOH needed = 0.004 mol; volume = 0.004/0.1 = 0.040 L = 40 mL.
3. (a) 0.2 m. Moles of urea = 3/60 = 0.05 mol. Molality = 0.05/0.250 kg = 0.2 mol/kg.
4. (d) CaCl2. Elevation in boiling point is proportional to i × m. CaCl2 gives 3 ions (i = 3), NaCl gives 2, glucose and urea give 1.
5. (b) 95 mm Hg. By Raoult's law, P = X(solvent) × P° = 0.95 × 100 = 95 mm Hg. The relative lowering equals the solute mole fraction, 0.05.

Set B answers

6. (c) at all temperatures. ΔG = ΔH − TΔS. With ΔH negative and ΔS positive, both terms make ΔG negative at every temperature.
7. (c) ΔH = ΔU − 2RT. ΔH = ΔU + Δn(g)RT, and Δn(g) = 2 − 4 = −2.
8. (b) 2. Each H2SO4 gives 2 H+, so [H+] = 2 × 0.005 = 0.01 M and pH = −log(0.01) = 2.
9. (c) Kp = Kc(RT)^-2. Kp = Kc(RT)^Δn with Δn = 2 − 4 = −2.
10. (d) 1.34 × 10^-5 mol/L. For AgCl, Ksp = s × s, so s = √(1.8 × 10^-10) ≈ 1.34 × 10^-5 mol/L.

Set C answers

11. (b) 1.10 V. E°cell = E°(cathode) − E°(anode) = 0.34 − (−0.76) = 1.10 V. Copper is the cathode, zinc the anode.
12. (c) −212.3 kJ/mol. ΔG° = −nFE° = −2 × 96500 × 1.10 = −212,300 J/mol ≈ −212.3 kJ/mol. The negative sign shows the cell reaction is spontaneous.
13. (c) 2,89,500 C. Al3+ + 3e− → Al, so 1 mol Al needs 3 mol electrons = 3 × 96500 = 2,89,500 C.
14. (a) 20 minutes. In a first-order reaction, each half-life halves what is left: 100% → 50% → 25% remaining. 75% completion takes two half-lives = 20 minutes.
15. (c) second. The unit of k is (mol/L)^(1 − n) s^-1. For n = 2 this gives L mol^-1 s^-1.

Set D answers

16. (b) (CH3)3C+. The tertiary carbocation has the most hyperconjugation and +I effect from three methyl groups. Order: 3° > 2° > 1° > methyl.
17. (a) Cl3CCOOH. Three chlorine atoms pull electron density by the −I effect and stabilise the carboxylate ion most, so trichloroacetic acid is the strongest.
18. (c) but-2-ene. Each double-bond carbon in CH3CH=CHCH3 carries two different groups (H and CH3). The other three have two identical groups on at least one double-bond carbon.
19. (a) 2. C2 carries H, OH, CH3 and CH(Cl)CH3; C3 carries H, Cl, CH3 and CH(OH)CH3. Both have four different groups, so both are chiral.
20. (b) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3. Sodium cyanide from the fusion reacts with FeSO4 to form sodium hexacyanidoferrate(II), Na4[Fe(CN)6], which then reacts with Fe3+ to give ferric ferrocyanide, Prussian blue. Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS] is the violet colour in the sulphur test.

Set E answers

21. (a) 1-bromopropane. With peroxide, HBr adds by a free-radical path, giving the anti-Markovnikov product (peroxide or Kharasch effect). Without peroxide the main product is 2-bromopropane.
22. (d) acetone and acetaldehyde. The C=C breaks into two C=O groups: (CH3)2C= becomes (CH3)2C=O (acetone) and =CHCH3 becomes CH3CHO (acetaldehyde).
23. (b) (CH3)3CBr. SN1 goes through a carbocation; the tertiary carbocation is the most stable, so tert-butyl bromide reacts fastest.
24. (c) (S)-butan-2-ol. SN2 involves backside attack with inversion of configuration. Here the OH takes the same priority position as Br, so R becomes S.
25. (a) deactivating and ortho/para directing. The −I effect of Cl lowers ring electron density overall, but its +R effect (lone pair donation) directs incoming groups to ortho and para positions.

Set F answers

26. (c) ethanol. The iodoform test is positive for compounds with a CH3CO group or a CH3CH(OH) group. Ethanol, CH3CH2OH, has the CH3CH(OH) unit; it is oxidised to CH3CHO, which gives CHI3.
27. (d) the phenoxide ion is stabilised by resonance. The negative charge on oxygen spreads into the benzene ring. The ethoxide ion has no such resonance, so ethanol loses H+ less easily.
28. (b) HCHO. Aldol condensation needs at least one alpha hydrogen. Formaldehyde has no alpha carbon, so it cannot form the enolate needed.
29. (b) (CH3)2NH > CH3NH2 > (CH3)3N > NH3. In water, the order depends on the +I effect, hydrogen bonding with water (solvation) and steric hindrance together; this is the NCERT order for methylamines.
30. (c) phenol. C6H5N2Cl + H2O → C6H5OH + N2 + HCl on warming. This is a standard route from aniline to phenol via the diazonium salt.

How should you score and use this chemistry quiz?

Give yourself one mark for each correct answer. Use the score of each set, not the total, to decide what to revise first. A low score in one set tells you exactly which NCERT chapters to reread before your next mock.

Keep a mistakes notebook with one line per error: the topic, the wrong choice you made and the correct reason.

How does this fit into your JEE Main 2027 preparation?

Chapter-wise quizzes are for checking one topic at a time. Once your sets are mostly 4 or 5 out of 5, shift to full-length timed papers, where chemistry is often where students save time for physics and maths. Plan this shift a few weeks before Session 1.

NTA's free official mock tests are the best next step; our guide to JEE Main 2027 free mock tests and chapter-wise practice explains how to use them. For a full timetable, see the 100-day JEE Main 2027 study plan. JEE Main 2027 Session 1 dates have been announced in NTA's official calendar (tentative), and registration is not open yet; track updates on our JEE Main 2027 exam date page.

Every extra mark moves your percentile, and percentile decides which colleges are in reach. Our pillar guide on colleges for low JEE Main rank shows how much the band you land in matters.

Final Word: make this JEE Main chemistry chapter-wise quiz a habit

This JEE Main chemistry chapter-wise quiz is most useful if you repeat it. Take one set after finishing each chapter, retake weak sets after a week, and add your own questions from NCERT examples to each group.

• Attempt each set in about 5-6 minutes without notes.
• Check every answer, including the ones you got right by guessing.
• Write one-line reasons for each mistake in a notebook.
• Revise inorganic chemistry with the separate exceptions quiz.
• Move to NTA mock tests once most sets score 4 or 5.
• Recheck the syllabus when NTA releases the JEE Main 2027 bulletin.